Where did the narrative come from that his death was a result of a fentanyl overdose and not a knee to his neck?
Have heard a spike in this debate recently and wasn’t sure if something new came out…EVERYTHING I can find on the web seems to refute this.
What changed? Honest question. Thanks!
Have heard a spike in this debate recently and wasn’t sure if something new came out…EVERYTHING I can find on the web seems to refute this.
What changed? Honest question. Thanks!
